Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 01.07.2025 09:02

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Did Harry and Meghan really get what they wanted?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Kevin Durant Reportedly Would've Put Knicks on Top Landing Spots If NY Pursued Trade - Bleacher Report

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

India Is Breaking Apart — Geologists Detect Deep Continental Fracture - The Daily Galaxy

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.